Ask The Wizard #180

When examining the bonuses, the house edge is lower for the over bet at 6.55%, as I demonstrate in my work. The odds of drawing three suited cards is calculated as 4×combin(78,3)/combin(312,3) = 4×776076/5013320 = 0.060699. The chances that the player's two cards are suited while the dealer's card is not comes from (4×combin(78,2)×234)/(combin(312,2)×310) = 2810808/15039960 = 0.186889. Assuming the action chips hold a value of 49.5% of their stated value, the bonuses come to 0.495×(0.060699×$10 + 0.186889×$5) = $0.76301. The anticipated loss on the over bet stands at $10×0.0655 = $0.655. Thus, each $10 wagered on over 13 yields $0.76301 - $0.655 = 10.8 cents in value. The players enjoy an overall advantage of 1.08% on a $10 over 13 wager. blackjack appendix 8 Hello, Wizard. Here at the casino, players have the option to take over another player’s hand if they decide to fold. However, the new player must place the requisite bet themselves. Should I take over if I can see that one of the dealer’s cards is a low rank, from 2 to J? What would my advantage be? I appreciate your guidance.

The probability of winning exactly 92 games and losing 70 can be calculated as 162!/(92!×70!)×0.55^(92)×0.45^(70) = 0.056868. To determine the probability of winning at least 92 games, you would need to aggregate this calculation for all outcomes from 92 to 162 wins. The result for achieving 92 or more wins is 0.353239. Gambling 102 .

I take it that by 'dutching' you're referring to the strategy of hedging. In the sixth chapter of my work, I discuss the principle 'Thou shalt not hedge thy bets.' The sole exception I would make is if the hedge bet itself presents a positive expected value, or if there is a substantial amount of money at stake.⁹²₧0.45⁷⁰I'm keen on trying online gaming, but I noticed that the Bodog casino you suggested does not permit Canadian players. Can you explain the reasoning behind this?

How many five-card combinations can you create with cards from precisely two suits? ten commandments of gambling The suits can be distributed in a 4 and 1 manner, or a 3 and 2 split. Let's first examine the 4/1 division. You can choose from 4 suits to comprise the one with four cards, leaving you with 3 choices for the suit holding just 1 card. There are combin(13,4)=715 ways to select 4 ranks from the 13. There are also 13 options for choosing a singular rank. Hence, there are 4×3×715×13=111,540 possible ways to achieve a 4/1 distribution across the two suits. Employing similar reasoning, there are 4×3×combin(13,3)×combin(13,2)=267,696 ways to create a 3/2 split. Therefore, the overall probability comes out to (111540+267696)/combin(52,5) = 14.59%.

My inquiry doesn't revolve around securing long-term victories through systems, as we recognize that to be impossible. However, might these systems serve a purpose in 'tailoring' the losing experience? For instance, Player A might prefer that each visit to the casino results in either a small win or a moderate loss (acknowledging he’ll lose a little more often than he wins). In contrast, Player B may favor an opportunity to earn a small profit four out of five visits while experiencing significant losses on one of those trips.

Indeed, while no betting system can alter the house edge, they can still be leveraged to enhance the odds of meeting specific trip goals. Player A seeks to take minimal risks, meaning he should opt for flat betting. On the other hand, Player B desires a higher chance of winning during his visits, so he should consider increasing his bets following a loss, accepting that this method could lead to greater losses overall. Additionally, though you didn't ask, someone aiming to either minimize losses or hit a big win should ramp up their bets following a win. This approach generally results in losses, but it can also yield occasional substantial wins.

Dear Mr. Wizard, I have recently been attempting to determine the probability of achieving a flush in Texas Hold 'Em if I am dealt two suited hole cards. However, my calculations consistently yield 5.8%, which appears to be inaccurate. Your assistance in clarifying this would be greatly appreciated.

I have been involved with a guy for three years. He claims he doesn't want a commitment but expresses a desire to always be with me. Currently, our relationship revolves solely around physical intimacy. Do you think he will ever want something more, or is it common for a guy to continue this arrangement while seeking other relationships? I feel sad about not receiving more from him. combin (10,5)/combin(15,5))⁴It appears he’s enjoying the benefits without any commitment, suggesting he may not feel inclined to pursue a more serious relationship.⁴×(1/combin(15,4)) = 1 in 111,007,923,832,371,000.

Thanks. (4⁵-4)/combin(52,5) = 1020/2598960 = 1 in 2,548.

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A nearby casino is running a special offer on their over/under 13 side wager in blackjack. If your initial two cards are of the same suit, you earn a $5 'action chip.' If both your pair and the dealer's visible card match in suit, you receive a $10 action chip. These action chips can only be used for a single wager; any winnings can be retained, but you lose the chips. The minimum bet starts at $10, utilizing six decks of cards. What is the casino's edge on the over/under 13 bet?